Two Compasses, One Prophecy/Loophole by Various Theorists

After an interesting discussion started earlier by Ricky and neoloki, we were left with a cliffhanger of a supposition from neo: The compass is part of MIB’s loophole…What? It sent my mind spinning. I don’t want to hijack this topic from them (quite the opposite), but I do want to open the discussion with a theory, since this idea is related to one I’ve been wondering about for quite some time:

First, to me, the question of the compass answers a fundamental one: how can we have these loops where it appears that past/future events are equally influenced by one another?

There are many instances of such loops, where people affect the past, and at the same time, the past affects them to makes those changes in the first place. I must ask, can past and future events really affect each other equally? It’s the classic-chicken and the egg question, but for me, there must be an initial catalyst.

An example: Ben influences Sayid to kill people > Sayid shoots young Ben > (events leading to) Ben influences Sayid to kill people… And there are a number of these paradoxical loops that people have used to argue for WHH. But again, the problem for me is the lack of catalyst in assuming that WHH. Did both events equally influence each other simply because that’s what’s destined to happen? I don’t know that even WHHers would necessarily argue that, but it does appear that these time-effect-loops are no accident (and are the result of careful planning by Jacob and the MIB).

I have thought about this question for quite some time, but Ricky and Neoloki’s ideas about MIB using the compass to find his loophole have sparked some ideas. Here’s the gist first though:

First, Ricky’s idea: The compass Locke gave to Richard was a second version of the same one.

Second, neoloki’s idea: The compass provides MIB with a loophole

It actually makes a lot of sense why this compass might be important. The compass helps to convince Richard that John is from the future, and will one day be their leader. Prior to John giving him the compass and telling him to go meet him, Richard had been quite skeptical. Perhaps then, if Locke hadn’t given him the compass, then Richard might have simply written off the strange meeting and his disappearance as an apparition or freak-occurrence.

Truly, would the transaction have had any importance if Richard didn’t already have the original version of the same compass? Okay, Richard could have been convinced by the fact that the man gave him a physical object (implying he was a real human-being), but it seems more likely that the compass was powerful in that it was proof that they know each other in the future (because Richard owned the same one, only newer).

Think about it; If during these time-skips, there are at least 2 Lockes, 2 sawyers etc. at certain points in their skips, then why couldn’t there be 2 compasses? If they could travel back to times where their past-selves are, then of course an inanimate object with them can (and presumably did) do it.

Then once Richard has possession of it, the compass no longer skips with them, and he's left with two. Didn't he say, this is "your compass back". If so, is that because he has the original? The duplication would then be Locke's (I could be wrong here though)

Finally, this is where the catalyst and loophole come in.
Correct me if this is wrong too, but wasn’t it originally Flocke that gave the compass back to Richard to give to flashing Locke, setting up that whole chain of events. Although the other instances might have happened first (depending on how you look at it), it appears it was the MIB that started this chain of events.

Again, if he hadn’t given John the compass, then it’s conceivable that Richard might have been unconvinced. But after this event did happen, then Richard might have decided to check on young Locke… (or maybe jacob decided, who knows)... No luck on young locke… But then later, he and his people do ultimately accept John as their leader, in part because of this compass prophecy (they were only further convinced by his healing that his prophecy was true).

Then, once they accept Locke as their leader, then the MIB could ultimately take over his role, and carry out his loophole, which was convincing people that John (and in turn he) was their leader, so that he could ultimately find Jacob and manipulate Ben.

That’s my take on the idea anyway, so I’ll leave it open to discussion. I reiterate that the basis for these ideas are not my own (see the ageless Jacob theory for the source of this discussion), but this is my view as I grow impatient waiting on an explanation from neoloki. Can’t wait to hear what you all think.


Forever lost,
B3